Review Please
November 2001
Team tactics
- A 5 3
- Q 9 3
- 9 8 3
- A K 8 7
- K Q 9 7
- 7 5
- Q 10
- J 6 5 3 2
- J 8 4 2
- A K
- A J 7 6 5 2
- Q
- 10 6
- J 10 8 6 4 2
- K 4
- 10 9 4
Of seven matches at the bunny club, only one was easy. Partner opened 1NT (13–15 HCP), RHO bid 2 (single suiter), and I tried 2 amazingly ending the auction. West led the spade king, I won the ace and led a low heart won by east. East shifted to ace and a diamond and I won perforce and played a second heart. East won this and tried for an uppercut when all the trumps were out. I ruffed and considered the play in the club suit. I played the ten, and when west played low went up with the ace, spearing the queen. Now a trump back to my hand to run the club nine. Another finesse led to +170 on our 17 HCP. Our partners managed to get to 4 vulnerable of course and as you can see, this contract is cold.
Slam–o–rama
- 9 3
- 10 8 4
- Q J 8 6 5 4 2
- 9
- A K Q 5 2
- J 9 3
- K 10 3
- A 4
- 10
- A Q 7 6 5 2
- A
- K 10 7 5 3
- J 8 7 6 4
- K
- 9 7
- Q J 8 6 2
East opened 1 and my overcall of 1 did not slow west down. She bid 2 and soon the hand was in 6. I led the club jack (Rusinow) and declarer won the ace in dummy and played the heart jack won perforce by my stiff king! I figured to lead a second club and we were suddenly +50. At the other table my hand overcalled 2 and west waited for the reopening double which never came. Our teammates were +300 (six down) so we won eight IMPS instead of 14. We were still going to lose the match except for this hand:
- A
- A
- J 8 7 3 2
- K J 10 8 7 3
- J 7 5
- K 8 6 2
- 10 6 4
- 9 6 5
- K Q 9 8 4 2
- Q 10 9 7 3
- {void}
- A 2
- 10 6 3
- J 5 4
- A K Q 9 5
- Q 4
I opened 1 and north bid 2 (as who would not – my opening bid showed 3+ diamonds), east doubled and I bid 2 despite the minimum since diamonds is where I lived. North now bid blackberry and when I had one ace put the hand in 6 and we won 11 much needed IMPS.
Cover an honor with an honor?
It's pairs and the opponents are in four spades. You figure that it's a four–four fit and dummy holds Q J 4 3 and you have K 2. Declarer leads the queen and the question is: should you cover an honor with an honor? In this case the answer is yes since partner holds 10 9 6 and you will get a trump trick. In the event, the queen was not covered and, even though partner played the nine to induce declarer to try to smother the ten, declarer played low from dummy at the next trick and made an extra trick.
Suppose, however, that partner holds the 10 6 5. Now if you cover, declarer can finesse against the ten to pick up all the trumps. If you don't cover, declarer is put to the guess. So the answer is no!
Missing the ten and nine, the percentage play by declarer is to start with the ace (unless declarer decides to take advantage of our twosome by leading the queen and see what happens). What do you make of this problem?
Defence
- A 6 5
- K Q 10 8
- 10 8 4 3
- 4 2
- J 9 3
- A 7 5 3
- K 7
- K Q 8 3
- 10 8 7 4
- 9 6 2
- J 9 2
- 10 6 5
- K Q 2
- J 4
- A Q 6 5
- A J 9 7
It's IMPS and south at our table opened 1, my partner (west) doubled, north bid 1, south rebid 1NT and was raised to three. What do you lead from the west hand. Partner led the spade three and it worked out well. Declarer won the king in hand and drove out the heart ace. West persisted in spades and declarer won in dummy, cashed the hearts, and took a diamond finesse to the queen and king. West cleared the spades and I had a diamond entry at the end to defeat the contract and win 10 IMPS.
Precision corner
- J 10 8
- 4 3
- A 8 7 5 3
- A J 4
- A K 4
- K 10 7 5 2
- K 9
- Q 10 8
Partner (south) opened the hand 1NT instead of my choice of 1. I bid 2 (stayman) and when partner showed hearts, I bid 2NT (invitational). Naturally partner accepted and bid 3NT and we made +430 for a 7 IMP gain. On this hand if the opening bid is 1, I would bid 2 and partner would bid 3NT so we get to the same spot. However, the auction might proceed differently.
Suppose south chose to open 1 and north had a hand where he had to bid 1NT. Now south would have a decision to make: bid 2NT to show the strength and risk getting too high or bid 2 and get passed out in a 4–3 fit when game is possible.
Partner decided to open 1NT to narrow the range down to 13–15 HCP at the expense of having trouble showing the fifth heart. What do you think of this?
On this hand the auction went too fast, leaving me with a big guess.
- K 9 3 2
- 7 5
- A K 7
- A K Q 4
- A Q 5 4
- K Q 8 2
- J 9 2
- 7 2
Partner (north) opened 1 and I bid 2NT. Partner asked for a further description with 3 and I bid 3 showing 11–13 HCP with four cards in each major (balanced distribution). Partner then leaped into blackberry and bid 5 when I showed one ace. What is the meaning of 5? Is it signoff in 5? Is it a relay to 5NT? Your guess. I guessed to pass and it was right/wrong/right! It was a signoff in 5 but it looks like 6 is a make, but the spades were 4–1 so we made just five. North could (should) bid 3 to set trumps before using blackberry.
What do you bid and why?
- J 10
- K Q J 8 7 6
- 7 6
- K 4 3
- K 4
- {void}
- A K Q J 10 8 3
- A Q 5 2
You are south and it's your call (matchpoints). Do you bid 1 or do you bid 2? My choice is 1 as the opponents might be able to preempt in a major and leave you guessing at a high level. Partner responds 1 and you have to choose a second call. How about jump shifting to 3? At least that is forcing. 3NT could miss a slam. 3 could be passed! Let's say you bid 3. What is north supposed to say? 3 underbids the hand. My choice is 4. What is south supposed to bid over that? Looking at both hands at matchpoints (yuk!) 3NT (oops we are past that) seem to be right. At IMPS 5 looks best. However, there is much to be said for bidding 6 as the opponents are likely to lead spades and then it comes down to a 3–3 club break with real squeeze chances.